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April 29, 2009

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Michael Schneider

The bsaic idea is that the second lien is tied in lockstep to the modification of the first, following the precise schedule established by the Treasury.

The terms seems sound and reasonable, frankly. Financial institutions with large 'troubled' second lien portfolios on their balance sheets will, I think, need to take substantial write-downs. I haven't estimated the NPV of the modified cash flows, but if we take the range of 3% to 12% in the schedule for extinguishing, then the write-down is going to be large.

Bad for regional banks with home-equity loans on portfolio. But, probably just forces the inevitable, which is probalby part of the objective of the Treasury.

Here's the part I don't understand, perhaps you can provide some insight:

Suppose the first is securtized and serviced by Bank A, and the second is on portfolio of Bank B. Bank A modifies the first.

The value of the program would seem to be that Bank B is required to modify the second, whenever the first modified.

So, under the program is Bank B required to modify the second? And if so, does the Treasury really have the authority to require Bank B to modify?


cheers,

michael schneider

Kathleen Scanlon

Well, Under this Program yes Bank B will be required to modify the second and they have the authority to do so if Bank B signs up with the Treasury to participate in the Home Affordable Program.

Lets see if it works because the second lien holders have been difficult and many homes end up going to auction because of them

John Broad

I have two seperate lenders for the 1st mortgage and the second mortgage. I can't get the holder of the first mortgage (B of A) to contact the second lien holder and get the ball moving on the overall loan modification. Any suggestions.

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